Re: Perhaps an idiotic question
From: Gene Wirchenko <genew_at_ocis.net>
Date: Thu, 30 Nov 2006 12:32:15 -0800
Message-ID: <crfum2hi6e90o3l6aeo610n9ui6cri1jfk_at_4ax.com>
Date: Thu, 30 Nov 2006 12:32:15 -0800
Message-ID: <crfum2hi6e90o3l6aeo610n9ui6cri1jfk_at_4ax.com>
paul c <toledobythesea_at_oohay.ac> wrote:
>But it perplexes me even though I admit I have no good reason for asking:
>
>If I declare a relation (or more properly a relvar) R to have an
>attribute A where A's type is the type of R am I declaring a fallacy or
>something that is logically possible (ignoring whether it has any use)?
I see recursion but no termination.
What *is* the use of such a declaration?
Sincerely,
Gene Wirchenko
Computerese Irregular Verb Conjugation:
I have preferences. You have biases. He/She has prejudices.Received on Thu Nov 30 2006 - 21:32:15 CET