Re: VAT rate or VAT amount as a column?

From: Emily Jones <emilyj_at_hotmail.com>
Date: Fri, 4 Aug 2006 21:44:02 +0100
Message-ID: <44d3b196$0$641$5a6aecb4_at_news.aaisp.net.uk>


In the end I used just 2 columns. Fee and vat rate. The vat amount (and therefore total fee) are both derived, so I felt shouldn't be stored. I don't want the hassle of a trigger to update anything when the base data changes. Triggers are RDBMS dependent, and at the moment this is in Access (so no db engine triggers).

I thought a table with a derived column in it ISN'T normalised. Functionaly dependent not on the Primary Key, or something. No?

VAT rates are pretty much binary at the moment. All or nothing. In fact always charged, and always at the same rate, which I've set just as the default value for that column. But this way I can, conceivably, have different VAT rates for different customers. But at the moment I can't really see the need for a table of VAT rates. As it would have one record.

Thanks for your input.

Emily Received on Fri Aug 04 2006 - 22:44:02 CEST

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