Is this supposed to work like this?

I came across a condition today that did'nt make sense to me. Consider the following problem:

CREATE TABLE tablea (a1 number, a2 number, a3 number); ALTER TABLE tablea ADD PRIMARY KEY (a1, a2); INSERT INTO tablea VALUES(1,2,3);
INSERT INTO tablea VALUES(4,5,6);
COMMIT; CREATE TABLE tableb (aa1 number, aa2 number, aa3 number); ALTER TABLE tableb ADD PRIMARY KEY (aa1); ALTER TABLE tableb ADD FOREIGN KEY (aa2, aa3); INSERT INTO tableb VALUES(1,1,null);
COMMIT; Why do I not get a FK violation on the insert into table B? If I put in an obviously invalid combination in aa2 and aa3 then I get the appropriate parent key not found message.

Any ideas?

Thanks.

Alan Caldera
acaldera_at_airmail.REMOVETHISSPAMBLOCKER.net Received on Wed Oct 29 1997 - 00:00:00 CST