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no, certainly not. count(*) and count(<any constant>) should return the same
result, under all circumstances.there used to be a performance difference, in
the past.
kind regards,
Lex.
Does anyone know what the difference between count(*) & count(1) was *supposed* to be? Is there a theoretical functional difference?
-----Original Message-----
From: Joel Garry [mailto:joelgarry_at_anabolicinc.com]
Sent: Monday, February 14, 2005 7:35 PM
To: oracle-l_at_freelists.org
Subject: Re: is it possible in pl/sql?
Anthony Wilson wrote:
>it's a myth according to the venerable Tom Kyte. The SQL engine
silently rewrites >count(1) to count(*):
Funny, he mentions that is a fact, but I've missed the reference to where the
fact is shown. Though I'm inclined to believe anything Tom says, I find this
particular one ironic in that he is talking about facts and opinions when he
says it. And I'm certainly glad he mentions the differing case of 7.x, as that
means I didn't get the myth completely out of thin air or confused it with some
other function.
Just means that old habits die hard.
Joel Garry
http://www.garry.to
-- http://www.freelists.org/webpage/oracle-l -- http://www.freelists.org/webpage/oracle-l -- http://www.freelists.org/webpage/oracle-lReceived on Tue Feb 15 2005 - 08:04:10 CST